Thomas Jefferson was a slave owner.
So were most aristocrats of the time. Applying presentism doesn't invalidate the idea.
But there were also abolitionists at the time, even amongst that class. Jefferson not being among them does, actually, diminish his standing and his views on justice. This quote, for example, does not acknowledge that there are also laws which are unjust to obey; such as the owning of human beings in chattel slavery.
I don’t think suggesting that his quote would imply his slaves would be justified in violating their own enslavement is any kind of presentism.
It is just hypocritical: even his time most people knew slavery was unjust.
He never actually said it, either.
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