It is commonly understood that 'men' in that context and in the context of the time is a reference to 'mankind' or 'the race of men' which means the human race, not males specifically.
So why weren’t women allowed to vote when those words were written?
It's not as if every man was able to vote back then either. Property owners, of age, white.
The story of universal suffrage isn't that clear cut.
So did the Founding Fathers actually believe that all human beings were created equal?
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