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I don’t think that’s true. It looks like the US has pretty similar spending to European countries at least as a percentage of GDP: https://www.oecd.org/content/dam/oecd/en/publications/report...
"As a percentage of GDP" is doing a lot of heavy lifting there. Why would we normalize this to GDP?
Because a lot of it is salaries and other employee benefits.
what would we normalize it to? not saying you are wrong in any way, just curiously wondering?
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